Jeramy
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for God's heart and truth
by Jeramy Townsley
My Position
First, let me say that I am an Evangelical Christian,
committed to the Lordship of Jesus Christ, his death, burial and resurrection,
and our absolute need for Him for the forgiveness of our sins. Along with
this is a commitment to the integrity of Scripture--realizing the need
to try to understand the original intent of the author as s/he was inspired
by the Holy Spirit, rather than trying to dismiss passages that don't conform
to what I happen to want to believe.
Second, for those of you who have found your way to my website, I want
it to be a somewhat interactive place. I have my own beliefs about many
things, including homosexuality, but I do not claim to "have arrived."
In my search for God's heart and God's truth, I ask for your help. If you
have anything productive, whether opposed to my position or in support
of it, please post a message on the message
board This list will be a continuing list for all who come here to
see and learn.
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[Webmaster's note: You
are invited to the B-A webforums to discuss this paper (and anything else
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Marriage
I believe that the Bible does not condemn monogamous long-term homosexual
relationships. There are a number of passages that allegedly refer to and
condemn homosexuality. As for the Old Testament passages, I reject their
application to the issue of homosexuality because they are either found
contiguously with verses we wouldn't think of following anymore (abstaining
from sex with a woman while she is menstruating on pain of social and religious
ex-communication: Lev. 18.19-22, 20.13-18), they refer specifically to
temple prostitution (I Ki 14.24, 15.12--newer translations are now translating
these Hebrew words as "temple prostitute", not "homosexual"), or they have
nothing to do with homosexuality to begin with (Gen 19-the destruction
of Sodom and Gomorrah, which we have no indication was related specifically
to homosexuality, but to behaviors such as those characterized by the mob
that demanded that Lot give up the men in his house so they could gang-rape
them).
Arsenokoitai and
Malakoi
(1 Co 6.9, 1 Tim 1.9-10)
There are only three New Testament passages relevant to the discussion.
The two easiest with which to deal are 1 Co 6.9 and 1 Tim 1.9-10. In these
passages we are given the distinct impression (in English translations)
that homosexuality is sin. However, the Greek words used here do not refer
to the homosexual proper. The first word, malakoi, is translated
numerous ways: effeminate, male prostitute, catamite (a boy kept by a child
molester) in other Greek literature. In fact, the literal translation of
this word is "soft" and we have no idea what it means in this context (especially,
since we find this word in a "list" format, there is no real "context"
from which to derive a meaning anyway). It could just as easily have been
translated malleable, coward, sickly, lacking self-control or morally weak
(in a general sense), none of which have any specific homosexual connotations
(see Herodotus, Histories 7.153 and 13.51; Aristophanes Wasps 1455, Plutus
488; Aristotle, Nichomachean Ethics 1150a:33; Plato, Republic 556c). It
is found several other times in Scripture, being translated as soft or
fine referring to clothing in Matt 11:8 and Luke 7:25, and infirmity or
malady in Matt 4:23, 9:35, and 10:1.
The second word, arsenokoitai, translated in the NIV as
"homosexual offenders", is actually best translated as sexual aggressor
(with the connotations of a rapist of slave trader), or male prostitute.
This word is found in no extant Greek literature prior to Paul's use here,
which complicates our understanding of the word. The literal translation
of this compound word is (arsenos) male-bedders (koites),
which could easily mean a man who sleeps around.
The strongest argument that leads one to believe that Paul was referring
specifically to general homosexuality is the possibility that Paul coined
this term himself. If this is the case, then he probably created this compound
word from the Septuagint (the ancient Greek version of the Old Testament)
translation of Leviticus 20:13 (kai hos an koime:the: meta arsenos koite:n
gunaikos...). However, this passage refers specifically to the holiness
codes and thus probably implies some kind of ritual uncleanness (see
Addendum 2 on the Old Testament passages; and again, this assumes both
that he coined the term, and that he intended the term to refer back to
this passage, neither of which have strong evidence).
Moreover, one wonders why, if Paul is going to go to the extent of creating
a novel word to prohibit male homosexual behavior, why doesn't he, in the
same verse, create a complementary word prohibiting female homosexual behavior.
The conspicuous absence of such a prohibition implies one of two things:
1) If Paul is using the term arsenokoitai to refer to homosexual
behavior at all, he not prohibiting all homosexual behavior, only some
type of male homosexual behavior that produced ritual uncleanness in the
mind of the first century church (unless he is allowing for female homosexual
behavior, prohibiting only male homosexual behavior), or 2) he is, in fact,
not referring to homosexuality at all in these passages. In either case,
neither arsenokoitai nor malakoi are justifiably translated
as homosexual in any other Greek literature, which makes one question why
they are translated that way here.
Romans 1.18-32: God's Wrath
on Idolaters
The third passage of difficulty is Rom 1.26-27. There is no other passage
that has presented me with serious difficulty other than this one. I come
at this text in two ways. First, with the possibility that this text cannot
be understood in any way other than condemning homosexuality, I look to
standard hermeneutical rules, one of which is to not ground a weighty theological
belief based on one passage. If it is true that this passage condemns homosexuality,
but I find that it is the only reliable passage which does so, I cannot
say that homosexuality is necessarily sin. Such is the case with passages
in 1 Co which indicate clearly that women should keep silent in church.
This command (if taken literally) was not followed in the early church,
nor is it followed today. This is/was not because we feel the need to "erase"
passages we don't agree with, but that there is obviously something going
on there that we, today, don't understand, since women did in fact teach
in the early churches (during which they presumably had to speak). Moreover,
all major theological doctrines in Christianity are built around statements
that are repeated several time in Scripture: God loves, Jesus died and
resurrected, Jesus is coming back, all have sinned, etc.
My second approach to this passage is to try to understand what
it means *if* it isn't a broad condemnation of homosexuality. While Romans
1:18-32 is the primary text used from the New Testament by those people
who condemn homosexuality, that has not always been the interpretation
of this passage. For example, verse 26, which is the only verse in Scripture
which refers to lesbian behavior, is often used to round out the beliefs
of those who condemn all homosexuality is sin, since all of the other alleged
condemnations of homosexuality specifically refer to male-male behavior,
linguistically excluding female-female behavior. Looking back at early
interpreters of this verse, while some have believed that this verse referred
to lesbians (John Chrysostom), many key church leaders have not held this
view, such as Clement of Alexandria and Saint Augustine (Brooten, 1985).
The problem is that, in addition to the structural complexity of the passage,
there is an uncertainty in the meaning of certain phrases in the text,
primarily "exchanged natural relations for unnatural ones" (NIV, v. 26b).
For example, this idea could (outside of the context of this passage) refer
to sex with a barren or pregnant woman, sex with a menstruating woman,
pedastery, sex between animals of different species, etc., since the person
was exchanging the Judaic understanding of the purpose of sex (procreation)
for behaviors which could not produce children (Brooten p. 247, 1996; Ward
p. 271-273).
Romans 1:18-32 is a complex passage, and any quick reading of the English
translations gives the clear impression that all forms of homosexuality
are being condemned. However, the issue of whether or not homosexuality
is sin should not rest on a quick reading of a translation. Digging into
a passage, looking at patterns in and purposes of a passage as a whole
is the only way that we can find out what any text is really about. This
is true of Romans 1. English translations lack a dynamic quality that is
found in the original language, and obscures patterns that help us clarify
the meaning and purpose of the text. The primary pattern in this passage
is the usage of the phrases "they exchanged" (met/yllaxan; v. 23,
25, 26b) and "God gave them over" (paradwken; v. 24, 26a, 28), which
enclose three parallel thoughts between verses 23-28.
Parallelism is extremely common in the Hebraic wisdom literature (e.g.,
most of Proverbs), and involves repeating a thought in a different way
for emphasis. Paul, having been trained as a Pharisee in the Old Testament
Scriptures, would have been very familiar with this Biblical technique
of emphasis, and it is clear from the structure of this passage that Paul
is using this technique to emphasize God's wrath against the sin of idolatry.
He begins in verses 18-20 by showing the readers that there is some part
of God's character ("His eternal power and divine nature" NIV) that can
be seen in creation itself, apart from the special revelation found in
His Scriptures. Thus, even Greeks are without excuse as far as to whom
they should direct their worship. Moreover, we are told that these Greeks
did actually know God from His creation, however "they neither glorified
Him as God, nor gave thanks to Him" NIV v. 21). These Greeks, and Paul
was specifically referring to all non-Jews (see v. 16 for Paul's breakdown
of people-groups for this chapter: there are Jews, and then there is everybody
else (hellyni), translated as Greeks in the NASB, and Gentiles in
the NIV), were engaged in human philosophies (Stoicism, etc) and religions
which sought to understand and worship creation apart from the Creator.
Though they at one time knew God (v. 21), they eventually ended up in the
position that they "did not think it worthwhile to retain the knowledge
of God" (NIV, v. 28). Paul shows us in this chapter that this progression
of not glorifying God as God to abandoning the concept of God leads to
any number of sinful behaviors (murder, etc), as described in the last
several verses of the chapter (1:29-31). Finally, we see that while somehow
these Gentiles knew the laws of God, and knew that breaking these laws
deserve death, they not only practiced these behaviors, but approved of
others who did the same (v. 32).
That is the general outline of the chapter. The primary focus of the
chapter is on Gentiles who stop worshipping God, and who "exchange/substitute"
(met/yllaxan) the worship of idols for the worship of God. While
one could easily postulate that the substitution here could be extended
metaphorically to anything which takes our focus off of God (human philosophies,
busy-ness, religiosity, etc.), Paul's language here seems to limit us specifically
to explicit idol worship. Both of the first two parallel passages (vs 23-24,
25-26a), which are clearly bounded by the repeated phrases "they exchanged"
(met/yllaxan; this word refers to a substitution of one thing in
place of another) and "God gave them over" (paradwken; this word
refers to God allowing the natural course of events to occur from the behavior
initiated by the Gentiles--God didn't "cause" them to have the "sinful
desires" (v. 24), "shameful lusts" (v. 26a) or "depraved mind" (v. 28),
but when the Gentiles abandoned God, paradwken implies that God
stepped back and allowed the natural course of events to happen) very graphically
describe idol worship as it would have been found in Greek and Roman cultic
rituals of the time of Paul's writing.
18 The wrath of God is being revealed from heaven against
all the godlessness and wickedness of men who suppress the truth by their
wickedness, 19 since what may be known about God is plain to them, because
God has made it plain to them. 20 For since the creation of the world God's
invisible qualities--his eternal power and divine nature--have been clearly
seen, being understood from what has been made, so that men are without
excuse. 21 For although they knew God, they neither glorified him as God
nor gave thanks to him, but their thinking became futile and their foolish
hearts were darkened. 22 Although they claimed to be wise, they became
fools
23 and exchanged (yllaxan) the glory of
the immortal God for images made to look like mortal man and birds and
animals and reptiles. 24 Therefore God gave them over (paradwken)
in the sinful desires of their hearts to sexual impurity for the degrading
of their bodies with one another.
25 They exchanged (metyllaxan) the truth
of God for a lie, and worshipped and served created things rather than
the Creator--who is forever praised. Amen. 26 Because of this, God gave
them over (paradwken) to shameful lusts.
Even their women exchanged (metyllaxan)
natural relations for unnatural ones. 27 In the same way the men also abandoned
natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another.
Men committed indecent acts with other men, and received in themselves
the due penalty for their perversion. 28 Furthermore, since they did not
think it worthwhile to retain the knowledge of God, he gave them over (paradwken)
to a depraved mind, to do what ought not to be done.
29 They have become filled with every kind of wickedness,
evil, greed and depravity. They are full of envy,murder, strife, deceit
and malice. They are gossips, 30 slanderers, God-haters, insolent, arrogant
and boastful; they invent ways of doing evil; they disobey their parents;
31 they are senseless, faithless, heartless, ruthless. 32 Although they
know God's righteous decree that those who do such things deserve death,
they not only continue to do these very things but also approve of those
who practice them. |
The third parallel part is similarly bounded with the Greek words metyllaxan
and paradwken, but does not quite follow the pattern of the first
two parts. As in the first two parts, we see that God has given them over
to wicked behavior (v. 28). However, in both of the first two parts we
see that what they exchanged were clearly idolatrous behaviors, while in
the third part, we see sexual behaviors being exchanged/substituted. This
is the primary difficulty with this text. If one allows that the things
being exchanged in vs. 23 and 25 are metaphors for anything which draws
us away from God, then one can easily say that the sexual behaviors described
in vs 26b-27 describe general homosexual behavior. However, it seems like
a poor handling of the texts to allow for such a metaphorical meaning,
when the texts are so explicitly concrete in their descriptions of cultic
idolatry ("images made to look like mortal man" and "worshipped and served
created things"). In the same way, in order to preserve the symmetry of
the parallel verses, one would be safest to conclude that the third parallel
similarly refers to cultic idolatry. The fact that homosexual conduct is
described in this regard makes sense when one realizes that homosexual
temple prostitution was a common phenomenon of cultic idolatry rituals
in the geographic location and time in which Paul was writing. Taking this
interpretation of Romans 1:26b-27 preserves the symmetry inherent within
the text.
The only way to make this text refer to all homosexual behavior as opposed
to merely cultic temple prostitution is to either rip it from its context,
or to take a liberal interpretation of the text and make the three parallels
metaphorical instead of literal. This is especially clear when one looks
closer at the structure of the third parallel, and compares that to the
other two parallels. I might note that close analysis of the structure
is an appropriate technique to use with Paul. Paul was not ignorant of
the rhetoric of the day, nor was Paul careless with his words. Paul was
a master craftman when it came to language, and all of his letters show
a great attention to detail and structure.
At any rate, within the first two parallels, we see that God gave them
over to evil behaviors because of certain actions they took ("exchanging
the glory of God for images", and then worshipping and serving created
things rather than the creator). God does not necessarily give them over
because of what they have exchanged, but because of the actions taken because
of the exchanges (in the second parallel, they have exchanged the truth
of God for a lie, but the resulting action is that they "worshipped and
served created things").
In the third parallel, they exchange natural relations (phusikyn
chrysin) for those which are against nature(para phusin) as
described in verses 26b-27. However, it was not those exchanges which led
to God giving them over. Those exchanges resulted in verse 28, "they did
not think it worthwhile to retain a knowledge of God" (NIV), which is what
caused God to give them over. It was not the sexual behavior which caused
God give them over, but their abandoning their belief in God which caused
Him to give them over. The sexual behavior was a key part of the process
of them rejecting belief in God, just as making idols, and worshipping/serving
idols was a key part of the process in verses 23-26a.
Para Phusin and Natural Theology
At this point, it may be instructive to look at the phrase para phusin
("against nature"). In the cultural backdrop of Judaism, the primary reason
for sex was procreation. Any sexual acts which did not work to fulfill
this goal was para phusin. This is seen in other writings of the
era, such as Philo, Josephus and Plato (Ward; Brooten 1996; DeYoung 1988).
Philo, speaking as a Jewish writer contemporary with Paul, specifically
"condemns men who knowingly marry barren women . . . thereby destroying
their seeds. . . . These men are like pigs or goats, and are thus antagonists
of God and enemies of nature" (Ward, p. 271). Similarly, regarding pedastery,
Philo says that the active partner (the dominant, "insertive" male) is
para phusin because he "does not procreate" (Ward, p. 272). Clement
of Alexandria, speaking from an early Christian perspective, similarly
makes the claim that in order for sex to be in accordance with nature,
procreation should be the result (Brooten p. 247, 1996). Linguistically,
there is no specific reason why verse 26 could not refer to men having
non-vaginal sex with women (Miller), however, the context seems somewhat
prohibitive of that interpretation (specifically, the usage of the word
"similarly"/"homoiws" in verse 27). Regardless, the usage of para
phusin is another difficult part of this passage, not only because
it does not clarify the nature of the relationships that "their (the male
Gentiles') women" exchanged, but it also classes Paul's entire argument
into a very debated area, namely that of "natural theology." As discussed
elsewhere in this paper, Paul's usage of natural theology is not very helpful
to us as we attempt to apply New Testament rules to Western society. In
ancient Greece and Judaism, since women were little more than property,
there were strict sex-roles that had to be maintained. Any show of dominance
of a woman, or passivity of a man was an "exchange" that was "against nature."
Take, for example, Paul's clear command in 1 Timothy 2:11-14 that women
must be silent and in submission to their men, which Paul relates back
to the creation account with Adam and Eve (the created "natural order").
Then in 1 Corinthians 11:3-17 Paul makes a similar case, this time claiming
that "the very nature (phusis) of things" (NIV, v. 14) should make
it evident to us that men must have short hair, and that women must have
long hair. However, this is neither evident to those in most cultures today,
nor is it currently practiced among Christians. The reason for this dismissal
of Paul's commands isn't a rejection of the Gospel, but an acceptance that
the cultural dogmas of Paul's time which subordinated women as property
are no longer in effect today, and it would be inappropriate for us to
tie the Gospel to such ideologies. So Paul's argument "from nature," rather
than universalizing his case to all places and all times, seems to do the
opposite, and limits the consequences of issues tied to natural theology
to Paul's own time and culture. Similarly with the homosexual descriptions
in Romans 1:26-27, even if the behaviors mentioned there didn't already
seem to be limited to cultic temple prostitution by the context of the
triple parallelism, Paul's linking the behavior to natural theology seems
to further limit it, and calls into question its relevance for today's
culture.
Moreover, not only does Paul tie the sexual behavior described here
to his natural theology, but he also ties it to the word exekauthysan,
which describes the men as "inflamed with lust" (NIV). This word, which
literally means "utterly consumed by fire" (Hultgren), describes a behavior
which has nothing to do with a normal, monogamous relationship. This kind
of lust is one that grows to control all of one's thoughts and is insatiable.
This is not the kind of simple longings and drives described earlier in
the passage ("sinful desires"/"epithumiais", "sexual impurity"/"akatharsian",
v. 24; "shameful lusts"/"pathy atimias", v. 26, NIV), but describe an all
consuming force which takes control and destroys. While this type of phenomenon
can admittedly be found in some homosexual relationships, it is by no means
limited to homosexual relationships, and it is certainly not typical
of homosexual relationships (despite what some tenets of the media would
like us to believe). So this is a further exclusion of this passage from
referring to all homosexual relationships.
There are several reasons that lead me to believe that this passage
is not condemning all homosexual behavior, but is only condemning temple
prostitution/idol worship. First, when looking at the structure of the
passage, it seems clear, from a conservative interpretation, that the sin
in verses 26b-27 must be somehow related to some concrete form of idolatry,
not an abstract concept that describes all homosexual behavior. Rather,
the concrete form of idolatry that fits in with the structure of the parallelism,
yet also conforms to the homosexual content of the passage, seems to clearly
indicate that Paul's intent was to solely condemn homosexual cultic temple
prostitution. Second, even without trying to conform to the parallelism,
one can see that the primary issue of chapter one is that idolatry leads
to abandoning the belief in God. The third parallel shows that whatever
kind of sexual behavior is referred to, it causes them to stop believing
in God (vs 26b-28). However, there is a huge population of gays and lesbians
who believe in God. I am personally involved with multiple organizations
which contain Christian gays and lesbians, and can bear witness to the
existence of such people. These are not people who claim to believe in
God, but live lives of promiscuity, etc. These are people who are either
celibate gays (looking for a monogamous, long-term relationship), or are
in monogamous, long-term homosexual relationships, but who also have strong
beliefs in and love for the God of the Bible, and who have a strong commitment
to obeying the teaching of Scripture. In the absence of such models, it
would be much easier to accept that Romans 1:18-32 claims that all homosexuality
is sin, because it would then be obvious that since no homosexuals believed
in God, therefore verses 26-27 refer to all homosexual behavior. However,
since there are many gay/lesbian Christians (Evangelical/Catholic/Pentecostal,
etc.) who have a strong belief in God, then it becomes obvious that verses
26-28 cannot refer to all homosexual behavior, otherwise Scripture would
be in error. The final two reasons why I believe this passage is not referring
to all homosexual behavior, especially behavior that can be applied to
today's culture, is the fact that Paul ties the homosexual behavior to
natural theology, which, in other cases of Paul's teachings, seems to limit
those doctrines to Paul's own culture, and to the fact that Paul further
limits the behavior described in these verses to behavior characterized
by an all-consuming, destructive passion, exekauthys
Summary of Evidence
Finally, after the positive evidence given above, I would like to point
out some negative evidence. First, Jesus never mentions homosexuality.
Of all the things Jesus talked about, including sexual mores, if it were
an important issue to Him, I would think the writer of at least one of
the four Gospels would have written it down. Second, the New Testament
seems to be rather sloppy in its condemnation of homosexuality if it is
in fact being condemned, given that the only words it uses are open to
broad interpretation ("soft", "child molester", and idolatrous, lust-related
sex acts), rather than words that *clearly* refer to homosexuality, such
as arrenomanes or erastes. Further, the I Co 6:9 usage of
the juxtaposed terms arsenokoitai and malakos has been seen
by some commentators as a prohibition of both active and passive roles
in the homosexual act. This usage is inappropriate, however, because neither
term has such a connotation for this usage in any other Greek source. Moreover,
there were already specific juxtapositions used to refer to these two roles
of homosexuality, namely drwntes and paschontes, or paiderastai
and paidika. Thus the argument that Paul created these terms for
lack of better terms has no linguistic support.
To summarize the above evidence, and the evidence provided in
the addenda, there are three primary reasons why I have become convinced
that homosexuality is not sin. First, the linguistic and cultural evidence,
"allows" me to accept the proposition that homosexuality is not condemned
in Scripture. Each of the relevant Scriptural passages that allegedly condemn
homosexuality are found to be not referring to homosexuality at all, are
found in a context which makes them irrelevant to loving, commited homosexual
relationships, or are simply mistranslations. Second, if God wanted to
condemn all homosexuality, He blatantly failed to do so for the first 4000
years of history considering that there is not the slightest hint of condemnation
for lesbianism, only for male homosexuality, even though lesbianism existed
at the time of the writing of the Old Testament, and that in verses contiguous
with the prohibitions on male homosexuality, there are specific female
sexual behaviors that are similarly prohibited (which counters the argument
that the OT ignores female morality, and thus would not address lesbianism).
The obvious conclusion from this, is that God's intent was not to condemn
all homosexuality, only some form of male homosexuality that, for reasons
that are somewhat obscure to us today, makes those individuals ritualistically
unclean. It makes no sense for God, who in the New Testament shows us the
inadequacy of the Old Testament Law, to add new Laws on top of the old
Laws by suddenly including lesbianism in His list of prohibited behaviors,
as is alleged to be the case in Romans 1. Finally, Jesus makes it exceedingly
clear that all of the Law and the Prophets are summarized in two commands:
Love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with
all your mind, and Love your neighbor as yourself (Matt 22:36-40). Neither
of these two commands are violated by homosexual marriages, anymore than
they are in heterosexual marriages. Homosexual Christians are no less apt
to engage in behaviors which clearly exhibit the characteristics of these
two commands, or of the fruits of the Spirit (Gal 5:22-23) than are heterosexual
Christians. Therefore, I find no Scriptural or phenomenological evidence
for the traditional Evangelical allegation that homosexuality is sin.
`
It is based on the evidence above that I have to tentatively conclude
that homosexuality is not sin. We are told that "love comes from God" (1
John 4.7). If this is true, and the love between a man and a woman in a
long-term, committed relationship is truly love (which we can assume that
logically is from God), then why would not the love between a man and a
man, or a woman and a woman in a similar relationship not also be from
God? I contend that it is from God, and that He blesses homosexual
relationships as he does heterosexual relationships
Jeramy Townsley (updated 3/7/1998) |
Search for God's Heart and
Truth:
The Bible and Homosexuality
Addendum1:
Marriage
Addendum2 Old Testament
Addendum3
Greek Culture and Homosexuality
Addendum4
David and Jonathan
Addendum5
The Teleological Arguement
(Argument from Design)
Concise Bibliography
Comprhensive Bibliography
|